MDCAT Entrance TEST 2009 BIOLOGY

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BIOLOGY

Q.151 If DNA strand is       GCTATGG  mRNA strand synthesized from it would be:                         A) CGAUACC      C) CGATACC B) CGTATGC      D) CGUTCC



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Q.153 Tissue rejection is executed by:                                                                                                                                lymphocytes    C) B-lymphocytes  B) Monocytes      D) T-lymphocytes

Q.154 Which of the following statement best describes the function of sinoatrial node?                             A) It sends out electrical impulses to ventricles to contract.                                                              B) It is present at upper end of the left atrium                                                                                        C) It consists of small number of diffusely oriented cardiac fibers.                                                             D) It sends out electrical impulses to atrial muscles causing both atria to contract.

Q.155 A central cavity of the kidney where urine is collected after filtration is known as:                                                                           A) Ureter      C) Urethra  B) Pelvis      D) Urinary Bladder         Q.156 Aldosterone plays role in:                                                                                                          A) Transport of water         C) Uptake of sodium in loop of Henle                                                       B) Transport of K+ ions into kidney   D) Reabsorption of water

Q.157 Technique used for non-surgical removal of kidney stone is called:                                                         A) Ultrasound      C) Dialysis                                                                                                                      B) Lithotripsy      D) X-ray

Q.158 Microcephaly, the small sized skull is due to:                                                                                        A) Nutritional Cause     C) Hormonal Causes                                                                                            B) Skeleton Damage     D) Genetic Defect

Q.159 The joints that allow movements in several directions are:                                                           A) Hinge Joints     C) Fibrous Joints  B)                                                                                                    Ball and Socket Joints    D) Cartilaginous Joints

Q.160 The collagen fibers of bone are hardened by deposit of:                                                             A) Calcium phosphate     C) Calcium carbonate                                                                                       B) Calcium oxalate     D) Calcium bicarbonate

Q.161 Which of the following neurotransmitters lies outside the central nervous system?                                           A) Serotonin      C) Acetylcholine                                                                                                             B) Dopamine      D) Adrenaline

Q.162 Which hormonal pair shares a common hypothalamic releasing factor?                                                          A) STH and LH     C) FSH and STH                                                                                                       B) ACTH and LH     D) FSH and LH

Q.163 Which of the following will happen if fertilization does not occur?                                                      A) Menopause starts     C) FSH secretion is increased                                                                            B) Corpus luteum degenerates    D) Progesterone secretion is increased

Q.164 Newborn infant may acquire serious eye infections, if his/her mother has:                                          A) Genital herpes        C) Gonorrhea                                                                                                               B) AIDS                D) Syphilis


 
Page 15 of 18 Q.165 At the cephalic end of primitive streak, closely packed cells form a local thickening known as:                                                                                                                                  A) Henson’s Node          C) Primitive Ridge                                                                                           B) Gastrocoele                D) Primitive Gut

Q.166 In plants, the red light favours:                                                                                                          A) Enhancement of cell differentiation          C) Maturation of the cells                                                          B)  Elongation of cells                            D) Enhancement of cell division

Q.167 The reaction between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and hydroxyl group of another is a ______ synthesis in DNA molecule.                                                                                                       A) Dehydration              C) Oxidation                                                                                                            B) Rehydration     D) Reduction

Q.168 Enzyme which attaches the Okazaki fragments in lagging strand is called:                                                   A) Restriction endonuclease         C) DNA helicase                                                                                         B) Primase                                D) DNA ligase

Q.169 In phenylketonuria, phenylalanine is not degraded because of defective enzyme:                                 A) Phenylalanine hydrogenase        C) Phenylalanine oxidase                                                               B) Phenylalanine phosphate              D) None of these

Q.170 Males with XXY chromosomes suffer from:                                                                                   A) Klinefelter’s Syndrome           C) Down’s Syndrome                                                                                B) Jacob’s Syndrome               D) Edward’s Syndrome

Q.171 Internal program of events and sequences of morphological changes by which cell commit a suicide is collectively called:                                                                                                                    A) Necrosis          C) Metastasis                                                                                                                 B) Epistasis         D) Apoptosis

Q.172 Phragmoplast is formed from vesicle which originates from:                                                                 A) Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum          C) Ribosome                                                                  B) Golgi Complex                                                 D) Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum

Q.173 When phenotype of a heterozygote is in between the phenotypes of both the homozygote parents, it is called:                                                                                                                                     A) Incomplete dominance       C) Pleiotropy                                                                                              B) Epistasis                             D) Codominance

Q.174 Which one of correct about ‘Rh+’ blood?                                                                                            A) Will produce anti-Rh antibodies if given Rh+ blood         C) Rh+ antigens are present on RBCs                                                                                                                                                          B) Cannot produce anti-Rh antibodies in any case                                                                                    D) Rh+ antibodies are present in blood

Q.175 Temperature-insensitive (thermostable) enzyme used in PCR is:                                                       A) DNA polymerase I         C) DNA ligase                                                                                       B) DNA polymerase III            D) Taq polymerase

Q.176 Cloning is a form of:                                                                                                                   A) Parthenogenesis          C) Sexual Reproduction                                                                                B) Apomixis                      D) Asexual Reproduction

Q.177 Antigens to treat Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma are produced by:                                                         A) Wheat Plant            C) Tobacco Plant                                                                                                        B) Rice Plant               D) Corn Plant

Q.178 The survival of an organism during the struggle for existence is not random, but depends on:                       A) Its genetic constitution               C) Its ability to over-produce                                                            B) Its ability to acquire characters        D) Its ability to over-eat

Q.179 Evolutionary relationships amongst species are reflected in their:                                                    A) DNA and proteins            C) DNA and gene                                                                                         B) RNAs and proteins            D) DNA and RNAs

Page 16 of 18                                                                                                                                                Q.180 If all the members of a population are homozygous for the same allele, that allele is said to be:                                                                                                                                                                 A) Random in population’s pool                      C) Random in a species                                                    B) Fixed in population’s pool                           D) Fixed in the gene pool

Q.181 Diseases in living organisms which are caused by parasites are called:  A) Disinfestations     C) Infections  B) Antisepsis      D) Infestations

Q.182 The nutrient cycles are also called:  A) Biogeochemical cycles    C) Bio element cycles  B) Biochemical cycles     D) Geochemical cycles

Q.183 The productivity of aquatic ecosystem is determined by:  A) Water      C) Light  B) Light and nutrients     D) Nutrients

Q.184 What is the drawback of nuclear energy?  A) It causes radiation pollution   C) It is very expensive  B) It is not long lasting    D) It pollutes the air

Q.185 Arteriosclerosis is:  A) A metabolic disorder    C) An infectious disorder  B) A degenerative Disorder    D) A nutritional deficiency disorder

Q.186 Antibiotics act against:  A) Bacterial Diseases     C) Bacterial and Viral Diseases  B) Allergies      D) Viral Diseases

Q.187 Immediate source of energy for cellular metabolism is:  A) Lipids      C) Carbohydrates  B) ATP      D) Proteins

Q.188 Haemoglobin exhibits:  A) Secondary Structure    C) Quaternary Structure  B) Primary Structure     D) Tertiary Structure

Q.189 Pepsin enzyme is produced in an inactive form and is activated in situation when it is required because: A) Not produced in complete form   C) It does not work efficiently at that time  B) Quite capable of destroying cells internal structure  D) None of the above

Q.190 Enzyme after catalysis detaches itself from the product:  A) Completely      C) Changed  B) Incompletely     D) Unchanged

Q.191 A group of ribosomes attached to messenger RNA is known as:  A) Ribosome      C) Nucleosome  B) Lysosome      D) Polysome

Q.192 Detoxification of harmful drugs within the cell is done by:  A) Nucleolus      C) Ribosomes  B) Smooth Surface Endoplasmic Reticulum  D) Food Vacuoles

Q.193 Tay-Sach’s disease is due to the presence of an enzyme that is inverted in the catabolism of:  A) Proteins      C) Ascorbic Acid  B) Carbohydrates     D) Lipids

Q.194 What is true about pattern baldness?  A) It is autosomal recessive disease in males  C) It is X-linked disease  B) It is autosomal dominant disease in males  D) It is Y-linked disease


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Q.195 Symptoms of Herpes Simplex is:  A) Abdominal Pain     C) Vesicular lesions in the epithelial layer  B) Fever      D) Failure of immune system

Q.196 The major cell infected by the HIV is:  A) Leucocyte      C) Helper T-lymphocyte  B) Monocyte      D) B-lymphocyte

Q.197 ___________ are used as important vectors in genetic engineering.  A) Ribosomes      C) Nucleoids  B) Plasmids      D) Mesosomes

Q.198 Which of the following is aerobic bacterium?  A) Spirochete      C) E. coli  B) Cyanobacteria     D) Pseudosomanas

Q.199 The giant amoebas inhabit mud at the bottom of fresh water ponds and obtain energy from:  A) Microscopic bacteria    C) Anaerobic bacteria  B) Aerobic bacteria     D) Methanogenic bacteria

Q.200 A large group of parasitic protozoa, some of which causes various diseases such as malaria to humans, are:  A) Aschelminthes     C) Annelida  B) Platyhelminthes     D) Arthropods

Q.201 Penicillin is obtained from:  A) Penicillium notatum    C) Aspergillus fumigatus  B) Aspergillus flavus     D) Penicillium chrysogenum

Q.202 Which of the following components is less resistant to decay?  A) Lignin      C) Chitin  B) Starch      D) Cellulose

Q.203 __________ are bioindicators of air pollution.   A) Cyanobacteria     C) Mycorrhiza  B) Fungi      D) Lichens

Q.204 The gymnosperms are called ‘Naked Seeded’ plants because they bear naked:  A) Antheridia      C) Fruits  B) Ovules      D) Archegonia 

Q.205 The integumented indehiscent mega sporangium is called:  A) Seed      C) Archegonium  B) Megagametophyte     D) Ovule

Q.206 Pulses are present in the family:  A) Caesalpinlaceae     C) Gramineae  B) Fabaceae      D) Mimosaceae

Q.207 It is an endoparasite of humans, cattle and pig that completes its life cycle in two hosts:  A) Tapeworm      C) Liver fluke  B) Aurelia      D) Planaria

Q.208 Tse-tse fly causes the sleeping sickness and skin diseases by transmitting:  A) Plasmodium     C) Anopheles  B) Trypanosoma     D) Insects

Q.209 Coelem is a cavity lined by:  A) Mesoderm      C) Epiderm  B) Endoderm      D) Ectoderm 



Page 18 of 18 Q.210 Which of the following molecules is reduced by accepting hydrogen in Calvin Cycle?  A) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate   C) 3-Phosphoglycerate  B) Ribulose bisphosphate    D) 1,3-Bisphosphoglycerate

Q.211 The molecule formed after first phosphorylation during glycolysis is:  A) Fructose-6-phosphate    C) Glucose-1-phosphate  B) Fructose-1, 6-bisphosphate    D) Glucose-6-phosphate

Q.212 Krebs Cycle in mitochondria takes place in:  A) Cytosol      C) Outer Membrane  B) Matrix      D) Inner Membrane

Q.213 At the junction between esophagus and the stomach there is a special ring of muscles called:  A) Cardiac Sphincter     C) Esophageal Sphincter  B) Ileocolic Sphincter     D) Pyloric Sphincter

Q.214 Hepatic and pancreatic secretions are also stimulated by a hormone called:  A) Gastrin      C) Insulin  B) Secretin      D) Glucagon

Q.215 Like pepsin, trypsin is also secreted as inactive trypsinogen, which is activated by:  A) Enterokinase     C) Chyme  B) Lipase      D) Erypsin

Q.216 During photorespiration, the glycolate is converted into glycine in a structure of cell called:  A) Golgi Bodies     C) Mitochondria  B) Glyoxisome     D) Peroxisome

Q.217 The respiratory pigment, which has much higher affinity to combine with oxygen, is:  A) Myoglobin      C) Haemoglobin  B) Globin      D) Hemocyanin

Q.218 Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood in the form of:  A) Bicarbonate     C) CO2  B) Carboxyhemoglobin    D) Blood plasma protein

Q.219 Antibiotics are actually:  A) Globular proteins     C) Fibrous proteins  B) Glycoproteins     D) Glycolipids

Q.220 Heparin prevents blood clots and is released by:  A) Eosinophils      C) Neutrophils  B) Monocytes      D) Basophils

Al Muslim Hadees Number 72

ابوصالح نے حضرت ابوہریرہ رضی اللہ عنہ سے اور انہوں نے رسول اللہ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم سے روایت کی کہ آپ صلی اللہ علیہ وسلم نے فرمایا : اللہ عزوجل نے فرمایا : میرے بارے میں میرے بندے کا جو گمان ہو میں اس کے ساتھ ( مطابق ہوتا ) ہوں اور وہ مجھے جہاں ( بھی ) یاد کرے میں اس کے پاس ہوتا ہوں ۔ اللہ کی قسم! اللہ تعالیٰ اپنے بندے کی توبہ پر تم میں سے ایسے آدمی کی نسبت بھی زیادہ خوش ہوتا ہے جسے چٹیل بیابان میں اپنی گم شدہ سواری ( سامان سمیت واپس ) مل جاتی ہے ۔ ( میرا ) جو بندہ ایک بالشت میرے قریب آتا ہے ، میں ایک ہاتھ اس کے قریب آ جاتا ہوں اور جو ایک ہاتھ میرے قریب ہوتا ہے ، میں دونوں ہاتھوں کی پوری لمبائی کے برابر اس کے قریب ہو جاتا ہوں اور جو چلتا ہوا میری طرف آتا ہے ، میں دوڑتا ہوا اس کے پاس آتا ہوں ۔

UHS ENTRANSE TEST ENGLISH 2009 MDCAT

1. e 

 ENGLISH
Q.121 The traveler __________ a long detour to water the camels. A) Took       C) Sought  B) Saw       D) Made

Q.122 Shah Jahan __________ the great mosque at Delhi. A) Founded       C) Created  B) Raised       D) Established

Q.123 He was __________ of theft in the court. A) Charged       C) Blamed  B) Reported       D) Accused

Q.124 He __________ on a very extraordinary ambition. A) Arrived       C) Came  B) Decided       D) Hit

SPOT THE ERROR: In the following sentences, some segments of each sentence are underlined. Your task is to identify that underlined segment of the sentence, which contains the mistake that needs to be corrected. Fill the Circle corresponding to that letter under the segment in the MCQ Response From.

Q.125 He is better than all the boys in the class, in studies as well as in sports, and bags big prizes in various field.                       A)         B)             C)                        D) 

Q.126 One must not depend too much upon one’s hard work, as provident also plays its part.    A)           B)            C)  D)

Q.127 His first adventure was to go round through the world at minimum cost.  A)    B)   C)    D)

Q.128 He has been working in this department since the last five years without any break.      A)          B)   C)    D)
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Q.129 He reached at Lahore only a few days ago, on last Friday, to be exact, and is going to stay here for some time.            A)            B)     C)    D)

Q.130 There was a big rally on the Mall, but as the crowd disintegrated, chaos and confusion ruled everywhere.                                     A)       B)         C)                           D)


In each of the following question, four alternative sentences are given.  Choose the CORRECT one and fill the Circle corresponding to that letter in the  MCQ Response Form.


Q.131
A) E-mail is a relatively new mean of communication.  C) E-mail is a relatively new means of communication. B) E-mail is a relatively new mean to communication.  D) E-mail is a relatively new means to communication.

Q.132
A) As she said the computer was programmed by Mona. B) Just like she said the computer was programmed by Mona. C) As like she said the computer was programmed by Mona. D) Just like she had she said the computer was programmed by Mona.

Q.133
A) The remains of the body were thrown into the sea.  C) The remains of the body were thrown to the sea. B) The remain of the body was thrown into the sea.  D) The remains of the body was thrown into the sea.

Q.134
A) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee will leave. B) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee left. C) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee may leave. D) We will discuss your problem as soon as the committee leaves.

Q.135
A) Reaching for the book, the ladder slipped out from under him. B) Reaching for the book, the ladder slipped out from him. C) When he reached for the book, the ladder was slipped out from under him. D) When he was trying to reach for the book, the ladder slipped from under him.

Q.136
A) After the sun has set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat. B) After the sun had been set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat. C) After the sun would set behind the mountain, a cool breeze would sprang up and brought relief from the heat. D) After the sun set behind the mountain, a cool breeze sprang up and brought relief from the heat.

Q.137
A) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he is in my position. B) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he has been in my position. C) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he has my position. D) Masood told me that he would hire more salesman if he had been in my position.

Q.138
A) He consumed his heart on this and washed away before the very eyes of the people. B) He consumed his heart at this and washed away before the very eyes of the people  C) He consumed his heart for this and washed away before the very eyes of the people. D) He consumed his heart over this and washed away before the very eyes of the people.

Q.139
A) They felt bad while leaving their friends.   C) They felt very badly about leaving their friends. B) They felt badly about leaving their friends.  D) They felt badly while leaving their friends.

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Q.140
A) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him on the earth like a log. B) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him over the earth like a log. C) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him to the earth like a log. D) He then struck the man himself a similar bow, which felled him in the earth like a log.

In each of the following question, four alternative meanings of a word are  given. You have to select the NEAREST CORRECT MEANING of the given word  and fill the appropriate Circle on the MCQ Response Form.

Q.141 AGHAST A) Critical       C) Happy  B) Reluctant      D) Horrified

Q.142 INVIDIOUS A) Unbreakable      C) Unpleasant  B) Interesting      D) Fair

Q.143 IMPROMPTU A) Arriving at the right time    C) Done without preparation  B) Showing signs of being good   D) Wretched

Q.144 DISCERNMENT A) A system of controlling a country   C) The act of encouraging somebody  B) The ability to show good judgement  D) The ability to show no concern

Q.145 NEOLOGISM A) A new word      C) Brief summary  B) Pleasant remark      D) Archaic expression

Q.146 FURTIVE A) Furious       C) Secretive  B) Familiar       D) Easy

Q.147 BOURGEOIS A) Belonging to the bureaucratic class   C) Belonging to the upper class  B) Belonging to the middle class   D) Belonging to the lower class

Q.148 RUMINATE A) Eat greedily      C) Work lazily  B) Think deeply     D) Run fast

Q.149 EMBELLISH A) Beautify       C) Finish  B) Nominate       D) Weaken

Q.150 PARABLE A) Impossible      C) Allegory  B) Sociable       D) Suitable

1.  

physics 1st chapter mcqs about measurement

• T

1. The SI standard of time is based on: A. the daily rotation of the earth B. the frequency of light emitted by Kr86 C. the yearly revolution of the earth about the sun D. a precision pendulum clock E. none of these Ans: E
2. A nanosecond is: A. 109 s B. 10−9 s C. 10−10 s D. 10−10 s E. 10−12 Ans: B
3. The SI standard of length is based on: A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian passing through Paris B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198 C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86 D. a precision meter stick in Paris E. the speed of light Ans: E
4. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly 3600/3937 international meter. This was done primarily because: A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yards B. the meter is more stable than the yard C. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more widely used system D. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meter E. the members of this Congress were exceptionally intelligent Ans: C
5. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length? A. 0.01m B. 0.1m C. 1m D. 100m E. 1000m Ans: C
Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT 1 www.allonlinefree.com
6. There is no SI base unit for area because: A. an area has no thickness; hence no physical standard can be built B. we live in a three (not a two) dimensional world C. it is impossible to express square feet in terms of meters D. area can be expressed in terms of square meters E. area is not an important physical quantity Ans: D
7. The SI base unit for mass is: A. gram B. pound C. kilogram D. ounce E. kilopound Ans: C
8. A gram is: A. 10−6 kg B. 10−3 kg C. 1 kg D. 103 kg E. 106 kg Ans: B
9. Which of the following weighs about a pound? A. 0.05 kg B. 0.5 kg C. 5 kg D. 50 kg E. 500 kg Ans: D 10. (5.0×104)×(3.0×106)= A. 1.5×109 B. 1.5×1010 C. 1.5×1011 D. 1.5×1012 E. 1.5×1013 Ans: C 11. (5.0×104)×(3.0×10−6)= A. 1.5×10−3 B. 1.5×10−1 C. 1.5×101 D. 1.5×103 E. 1.5×105 Ans: B
2 Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT www.allonlinefree.com
12. 5.0×105 +3 .0×106 = A. 8.0×105 B. 8.0×106 C. 5.3×105 D. 3.5×105 E. 3.5×106 Ans: E 13. (7.0×106)/(2.0×10−6)= A. 3.5×10−12 B. 3.5×10−6 C. 3.5 D. 3.5×106 E. 3.5×1012 Ans: E
14. The number of significant figures in 0.00150 is: A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 Ans: B
15. The number of significant figures in 15.0 is: A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 Ans: C
16. 3.2×2.7= A. 9 B. 8 C. 8.6 D. 8.64 E. 8.640 Ans: C
Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT 3 www.allonlinefree.com
17. 1.513 + 27.3= A. 29 B. 28.8 C. 28.9 D. 28.81 E. 28.813 ( )Ans: B 18. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is: A. 15 m/s B. 25 m/s C. 66 m/s D. 88 m/s E. 1500 m/s Ans: B
19. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a volume of: A. 2.1×10−5 m3 B. 9.1×10−4 m3 C. 3.6×10−3 m3 D. 0.11 m3 E. 21 m3 Ans: A
20. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a surface area of: A. 2.1×10−5 m2 B. 9.1×10−4 m2 C. 3.6×10−3 m2 D. 0.11 m2 E. 36 m2 Ans: C
21. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 m has a volume of: A. 0.20 m3 B. 0.14 m3 C. 9.3×10−3 m3 D. 2.3×10−3 m3 E. 7.4×10−4 m3 Ans: D
22. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 cm has a total surface area of: A. 1.7×10−3 m2 B. 3.2×10−3 m2 C. 2.0×10−3 m3 D. 5.3×10−3 m2 E. 7.4×10−3 m2 Ans: D
4 Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT www.allonlinefree.com
23. A cubic box with an edge of exactly 1 cm has a volume of: A. 10−9 m3 B. 10−6 m3 C. 10−3 m3 D. 103 m3 E. 106 m3 Ans: B
24. A square with an edge of exactly 1 cm has an area of: A. 10−6 m2 B. 10−4 m2 C. 102 m2 D. 104 m2 E. 106 m2 Ans: B
25. 1 m is equivalent to 3.281 ft. A cube with an edge of 1.5 ft has a volume of: A. 1.2×102 m3 B. 9.6×10−2 m3 C. 10.5m 3 D. 9.5×10−2 m3 E. 0.21 m3 Ans: B
26. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an automobile is given by v = at2 + bt3, where the time t is in seconds. The units of a and b are respectively: A. m·s2;m·s4 B. s3/m; s4/m C. m/s2;m /s3 D. m/s3;m /s4 E. m/s4;m /s5 Ans: D
27. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then B has the dimension: A. T/M B. L2/TM C. TM/L2 D. L2T/M E. M/L2T Ans: A
Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT 5 www.allonlinefree.com
28. Suppose A = BnCm, where A has dimensions LT, B has dimensions L2T−1, and C has dimensions LT2. Then the exponents n and m have the values: A. 2/3; 1/3 B. 2; 3 C. 4/5; −1/5 D. 1/5; 3/5 E. 1/2; 1/2 Ans: D
6 Chapter 1: MEASUREMENT

al tasrief book about surgery 1st 6 pages

Hundreds of thousands of medical manuscripts, written by Muslim physicians during the
medieval period, are to be found in libraries and museums and in private collections in
Turkey, Egypt, Syria, Iran, India, Azerbaijan, Morocco, Europe and the United States. The
United States National Library of Medicine in Maryland, USA, the world’s largest medical
library, has some 300 medical manuscripts in Arabic and Persian.

                     Folios from Al-Zahrawi’s illustrated work on surgery, Al-Tasrif (Bibiliotheque
2

         Nationale du Royaume du Maroc Rabat, Morocco)

Abul Qasim al-Zahrawi’s book Al-tasrif liman ajiza an al-talif is one of the masterpieces of
Islamic medicine and surgery. It comprises 30 treatises that encompass almost the entire
spectrum of medical knowledge. A distinctive feature of Al-Tasrif is that it contains about 200
illustrations and drawings of clinical and surgical devices and instruments, most of which
were designed by Al-Zahrawi himself. An exhaustive identification and description of the
extant manuscripts of Al-Tasrif is provided by Fuat Sezgin in his authoritative work
Geschichte des Arabischen Schrifttums (Leiden, 1970). Complete or partial manuscripts of Al
Tasrif are to be found in 12 countries, including Morocco, India, Turkey, Egypt and
Azerbaijan. More than five manuscripts of Al-Tasrif are preserved at the Royal Library of
Morocco at Rabat. Some manuscripts of the book are at the Suleymaniye Omomi
Kotophanesi, Istanbul. One of these is dated 1496 CE. 
3


Two pages from a manuscript of Al-Zahrawi’s Al-Tasrif, preserved at the Azerbaijan National Academy of Sciences, Baku (Credit: Azerbijan National Academy of Science)

4


Two pages from the Baku manuscript of Al-Tasrif, describing surgical instruments with illustrations


5

Khuda Bakhsh Library, Patna
Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh (d. 1908) was a bibliophile and an avid collector of manuscripts
and art objects. He inherited a collection of rare manuscripts from his father, Maulvi
Muhammad Bakhsh, to which he added a substantial collection of his own. In 1891 he opened
his private collection with 4,000 manuscripts to the public. 


Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh
The collection of Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh is now housed at the Khuda Bakhsh Oriental
Library at Patna. The library, which is a treasure trove of Islamic and oriental manuscripts,
has 21,000 manuscripts and more than 2,50,000 printed books on a wide variety of subjects.
The Government of India declared the Khuda Bakhsh Library an institution of national
importance in 1969.   

6


Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Library, Patna
The Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library in Patna (India) has two valuable manuscripts of
Al-Tasrif. One of them, which is dated 1710 CE, has 27 (out of 30) treatises of the book in
494 folios, and is written in the Maghrebi script. The other manuscript contains only the last
(30th) treatise and has 248 folios. This manuscript, written in the Naskhi script in 1188 CE,
has nearly 200 drawings and illustrations of clinical and surgical devices and instruments.
This is perhaps the earliest and one of the finest manuscripts of Al-Tasrif.
Dr Ahmad Abdul Hai, former Professor and Head, Department of General Surgery, Patna
Medical College Hospital, took a microfilm of the Patna manuscript about 20 years ago. One
of his valuable papers ‘Abul Qasim Al-Zahrawi’s Pioneering Contribution to Surgery’ was
published in The IOS Minaret in June 2010.   

7

implications for citizens and country best english essay

 12 6. Sectarian Violence: Implications for Citizens and Country  Violence is defined as the “use of force to injure, damage or destroy”. This force can be physical or otherwise and may therefore result in physical, mental and psychological injuries. The newspapers, magazines and television reports continuously indicate increase in violence.  This spring, the US state department reported that South Asia has replaced the Middle East as the leading locus of terrorism in the world. The past two decades have witnessed a notable escalation in sectarian violence in Pakistan. Since 1979 doctrinal disputes between Sunnis (who constitute the majority of Pakistan’s populations) and Shias (who are 15% to 25% of the population) have given place to full fledged sectarian conflict between militant Sunni and Shias.   Organizations have carried out assassinations and bombing campaigns that have killed political rivals as well as children and innocent people at prayers in mosques. In the last seven months of 1997 alone, the year when sectarian conflict reached at its peak, one thousand people died in such attacks in Punjab. The violence escalated further; when in 1997 (immediately preceding the celebration of the fiftieth anniversary of the country’s independence) another seventy people were killed in incidents of sectarian violence.   This essay is an inquiry into the nature of conflicts and significance of militant sectarian conflict in Pakistan. Parties to the conflict are the Sunnis, who constitute the majority Muslims in Pakistan, and the Shias, a small but influential minority. Conflict between these two religious communities has deep roots in the history of Islam and of South Asia. In Pakistan, which, aspires to be in some senses to be an Islamic state, sectarian conflict is part of and interacts with, broader issues concerning the place of Islam in public life. This essay seeks to analyze some  factors, which have contributed, especially in the past 25 years or so to militant sectarianism in Pakistan and to assess the significance of this form of Islamic radicalism.  Religious violence, extremism and sectarian mindedness are not in conformity or any accordance with the real teachings of Islam. Islam teaches religious tolerance and peace for all; not only for its followers but also for the followers of other faiths as well. “Surah Alkafirun” is living proof  of this fact:  “Say! O disbelievers! I Worship not that which ye worship; Nor worship ye that which I worship. And I shall not worship that which ye worship. Nor will ye worship that which I worship. U not your religion, and unto me my religion” (exact translation please)  We notice that in this Surah, the Prophet (PBUH) is asked to say ‘neither will you (Idolaters and infidels) change your religious practices nor shall I. I wish you to be blessed with your religion so shall I be with  ‘mine’. This does not mean that the Prophet (PBUH) or his followers should abandon inviting idolaters towards Islam. This practice of preaching of Islam shall continue but should be done according to the Heavenly teaching.  Reclaiming Cultural and Social Diversity: Mobilizing Youth for National Harmony and Peace: the Search for Resources Within  13“Invite them towards the way of thy Lord through wisdom and good advice”.   But regrettably those who are ignorant of the vital principles of Islam and are religiously narrow minded themselves have chosen the way of murder and violence on the basis of religious and sectarian dissents.  An analysis of Pakistan regarding sectarian violence and religious extremism says that “mullahs’ are just a means to overpower the government in Pakistan. The voices of extremism will be raised but they will never be able to overcome our mainstream national lives. In Pakistan religious extremism exists and certainly in a very unacceptable form due to which we are also suffering losses.  Sectarian violence is an unpredictable menace in Pakistan: for weeks, for months at a time nothing happens. Then all of a sudden there is sectarian massacre. No one can tell when or where the sectarian menace will strike next. While seeking an explanation for Pakistan’s sectarian menace it is note worthy that for decades, the country’s Shias and Sunni coexisted side by side without any major problems. Sectarian killings are a relatively recent phenomenon in Pakistani society. Their roots thus lie not in religious differences, but in political and social developments within Pakistan and region.  There are very real problems with regards to the capacity of the security forces. Whenever a sectarian incident takes place, police are quick to make arrests but those detained are usually scapegoats. Very few of the people arrested are actively responsible for sectarian killing. Improving the dismal record of the intelligence and society forces requires a huge investment in equipment and training: not easy for a country like Pakistan with limited resources.  Banning groups does not make them ineffective rather it takes them underground and makes them even harder to trace and curb. Unless the Pakistani government finds a way to deal with these dedicated sectarian killers, the threat of sectarian violence will continue to cast a dark shadow over Pakistani society.  

MDCAT chemistry mcqs 2009 entry test of UHS

CHEMISTRY
Q.61 Which of the following is an exothermic reaction?  A) H+(aq) + OH−(aq)                     H2O(l)   C)
1 2 H2(g)                H(g)  B) Na(g)                 Na+(g) + 1e−   D) 1 2 Cl2(g)               Cl(g)

Q.62 The rate equation determined experimentally for this reaction: (CH3)3―C―Br + H2O                      (CH3)3―C―OH + HBr  Is, Rate = k[(CH3)3CBr]  Hence it is which of the follwing?  A) Fractional Order     C) First Order  B) Pseudo First Order     D) Second Order

Q.63 Equilibrium constant Kc for
H2O                    H+ + OH−
 Can be written as follows:  A) Kc = H+ [H2O][OH-]     C) Kc = [OH-]H+ [H2O]   
 B) Kc = [OH-] H+[OH-]     D) Kc = [H2O] H+[OH-]    Q.64 The protonation of carboxylic acid is: 
A)
CH3 C OH
O
+ H+ CH3 C OH O+ H
 C) CH3 C OH
O
+ H+  CH3 C OH2 + O

   
 B)
CH3 C OH
O
+ H+  CH3 CH OH O+H
 D) CH3 C OH
O
+ H+  CH3 C OH O+ H


Q.65 Each molecule of haemoglobin is made up of nearly:  A) 11000 atoms     C) 10000 atoms  B) 6600 atoms     D) 6800 atoms

Q.66 A limiting reactant is the one which: A) Is mostly a cheaper substance and taken in larger quantity B) Is consumed earlier and controls the amount of product formed in a chemical reaction C) Gives greatest number of moles of products D) Is left behind after the completion of reaction

Q.67 During isotopic analysis, the pressure of the vapours of the ions maintained in the ionization chamber of mass spectrometer is:  A) Around 10-7 torr     C) 1 torr  B) Around 10-3 torr     D) 10-7 torr

Q.68 The acid which can be purified by the sublimation is:  A) Acetic Acid      C) Oxalic Acid  B) Benzoic Acid     D) Citric Acid

Q.69 Paper chromatography is used for:  A) Elemental Analysis     C) Qualitative Analysis  B) Industrial Purification    D) Structural Analysis

Q.70 In the process of respiration there is application of:  A) Dalton’s Law     C) Boyle’s Law  C) Charles’s Law     D) Graham’s Law
Page 8 of 18 Q.71 The formula of acrylonitrile is:  A) CH3=CH―CN     C) CH3―CH2―CN  B) CH3―CH2―CH2―CN    D) CH3―CN

Q.72 During nitration of benzene the active nitrating agent is:  A) NO2−      D) NO3  B) HNO2      D) NO2+

Q.73 Which compound is the most reactive one?  A) Ethyne      C) Benzene  B) Ethane      D) Ethene

Q.74 Grignard reagents are prepared by the reaction of magnesium metal with alkyl halides in the presence of:  A) Dry Ether      C) Alcohol  B) CS2      D) CCl4

Q.75 When n-butyl magnesium iodide is treated with water, the product is:  A) n-butane       C) Propane  B) Iso-butane      D) Alcohol

Q.76 CO + 2H2       
X Y
  CH3OH
 X and Y are:  A) ZnO + Al2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm   C) Al2O3 + Cr2O3 and 200 °C: 200 atm  B) ZnO + Cr2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm   D) ZnO + Cr2O3 and 450 °C: 200 atm

Q.77 Phenol reacts with concentrated H2SO4 to give:  A) ortho hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid  C) ortho and para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid  B) meta hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid  D) para hydroxy benzene sulphonic acid

Q.78 Phenol can be distinguished from alcohol by adding:  A) Br2/H2O      C) FeSO4  B) Cl2/H2O      D) FeCl3

Q.79 In the conversion of ethylene into acetaldehyde, cupric chloride acts as:  A) Initiator       C) Catalyst  B) Promoter      D) Reactant

Q.80 When acetone is heated in the presence of K2Cr2O7/H2SO4, the products formed are;  A) Maleic Acid and Fumaric Acid   C) Formic Acid and Oxalic Acid  B) Acetic Acid and Formic Acid    D) Oxalic Acid and Acetic Acid

Q.81 Which acid is used in the manufacture of plastics?  A) Carbolic Acid     C) Carbonic Acid  B) Acetic Acid      D) Oxalic Acid

Q.82 Which of the following compounds will react with Tollen’s Reagent?
 A) CH3 C OH
O
     C) CH3 C H
O

 B) CH3 C CH2 CH3
O
     D) CH3 C CH3
O


Q.83 In conjugated protein molecules, the protein is attached or conjugated to some non-protein group which are called:  A) Prosthetic Group     C) Hydrogen Bonding  C) Aldehyde Group     D) Peptide Linkage

Q.84 Micronutrients are required in quantity ranging from:  A) 6 – 200 g per acre     C) 4 – 40 g per acre  B) 6 – 200 kg per acre    D) 4 – 40 kg per acre
Page 9 of 18
Q.85 Potassium fertilizers are especially useful for:  A) Mango      C) Wheat  B) Tobacco       D) Rice

Q.86 The yellowish colour of photochemical smog is due to the presence of:  A) Nitrogen dioxide     C) Nitrous oxide  B) Dinitrogen trioxide     D) Nitric oxide

Q.87 The incarnation process can reduce the volume of the water by:  A) One half      C) One third  B) Not affected     D) Two third

Q.88 __________% of the known universe is in the plasma state.  A) 30       C) 50  B) 99       D) 80

Q.89 Absolute zero is unattainable. Current attempts have resulted in temperature as low as:  A) 10-4 K      C) 10-1 K  B) 10-2 K      D) 10-5 K

Q.90 Electron gas theory was proposed to explain the bonding in ____________ solids:  A) Molecular      C) Covalent  B) Ionic       D) Metallic

Q.91 In proteins, there are on the average _________ amino acid units for each turn in helix:  A) 25       C) 21  B) 27       D) 23

Q.92 In atomic particles: A) Mass of neutron is almost equal to mass of electron B) e/m of a proton is almost equal to e/m of electron C) Mass of proton is almost equal to mass of electron D) Charge of proton is almost equal to charge of electron

Q.93 The extent of bonding of a light ray after passing through prism depends upon:  A) Wavelength of photons    C) Energy of photons  B) Wave number of photons    D) Frequency of photons

Q.94 Splitting of spectral lines in closely spaced lines in presence of magnetic field is called:  A) Stark Effect     C) Photoelectric Effect  B) Zeeman Effect     D) Compton Effect

Q.95 A bond is not formed: A) When both forces become equal to each other  C) When attraction forces dominate repulsive forces  B) When repulsive forces become equal to zero D) When repulsive forces dominate attraction forces

Q.96 If the electronegativity difference between bonded atoms is zero, the bond between the two atoms is:  A) Polar      C) Non-polar  B) Partially Ionic     D) Both B and C

Q.97 VSEPR theory helps in explaining:  A) Attraction between atoms    C) Nature of bond  B) Size of molecule     D) Shape of molecule

Q.98 Which of the following formation is an endothermic reaction?  A) C(g) + O2(g)   CO2   C) 2H2O(l)  2H2(g) + O2(g)   B) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)   D) None of the above


Q.99 Solubility of KClO3 can be decreased bin H2O by:  A) Removing K+ ions from the solution   C) Adding KCl from outside  B) Removing ClO3-1 ions from the solution  D) Adding NaNO3 from outside
Page 10 of 18 Q.100 36 g of HCl dissolves in 100 g of solution. The density of HCl is 1.19 gcm-3. The molar mass of the HCl solution will be:  A) 36.5 g/mol      C) 38.0 g/mol  B) 100 g/mol      D) 11.73 g/mol

Q.101 The heat of hydration decreases with the increase in:  A) Number of neutrons    C) Size of atomic radii  B) Size of cations     D) Number of electrons

Q.102 Stronger the oxidizing agent, greater is the:  A) Redox Potential     C) Oxidation Potential  B) emf of the cell     D) Reduction Potential

Q.103 The emf produced by Galvanic Cell is known as:  A) Redox Potential     C) Cell Potential  B) Oxidation Potential     D) None of the above

Q.104 In nickel-cadmium battery, the cathode is composed of:  A) Cd       C) Ni  B) Ni(OH)2      D) NiO2

Q.105 Concentrated sugar solution undergoes hydrolysis into glucose and fructose by enzyme called:  A) Zymase      C) Cellulose  B) Invertase      D) Urease

Q.106 In Modern Periodic Table, the elements in Group II-B are:  A) Zn, Cd, Pb      C) Zn, Cd, Ba  B) Zn, Cd, Hg      D) Zn, Cd, Bi

Q.107 Hydrogen loses an electron to form:  A) H+       C) H  B) H2−2      D) H−

Q.108 Which metal occurs as skeletal material in egg shell?  A) Calcium      C) Beryllium  B) Barium      D) Strontium

Q.109 At which condition are hydrides of alkaline earth metals formed:  A) At high pressure     C) At high temperature  B) At room temperature    D) None of the above

Q.110 Which metal carbide is formed readily by the direct reaction?  A) Rubidium      C) Sodium  B) Potassium      D) Lithium

Q.111 Asbestos is hydrated _________ magnesium silicate.  A) Calcium      C) Barium  B) Aluminium      D) Carbon

Q.112 Formula of lead suboxide is:  A) Pb2O3      C) PbO  B) Pb2O      D) Pb3O4

Q.113 Phosphine can be produced by __________ of phosphorous acid.  A) Hydration      C) Oxidation  B) Hydrolysis      D) Reduction

Q.114 Which Noble Gas is used in bacterial lamps?  A) Xenon      C) Argon  B) Radon      D) Krypton


Page 11 of 18
Q.115 The most durable metal plating on iron to protect against corrosion is:   A) Tin plating      C) Nickel plating  D) Zinc plating     D) Copper plating

Q.116 Colour of the transition metal ions/ compounds is due to the electrons present in:  A) d-orbital      C) p-orbital  B) s-orbital      D) None of the above

Q.117 Chromyl Chloride Test is performed to confirm:  A) Cl− ions      C) PO4−3 ions  B) SO4−2 ions      D) Cr+3 ions

Q.118 Linear shape is associated with set of hybrid orbitals?  A) sp2       C) sp3  B) dsp2      D) sp

Q.119 Which one of the following compounds show cis-trans isomerism?  A) 1-butene      C) 1-bromo-2-chloropropane  B) 1-hexene      D) Propene 

Q.120 CH3―CH2―MgBr + H2O    + X

 Where ‘X’ is: A) Propane      C) Methane B) Butane      D) Ethane 

biology mcqs

 
muk education.com


Biology MCQs  INTRODUCTION TO BIOLOGY MCQS :
1.                   Ecology deals with a) Biotic factors of environment b) Abiotic factors of Environment c) Environmental relations d) Both a&b 
2.                  Histology is study of living organisms at ___________ level. a) Cell b) Organ c) Tissue d) Community 
3.                  Study of Geographical Distribution of animals is known as a) Biogeography b) Zoogeography c) Animal Geo graphics d) Non of above 
4.                  Unicellular Plasmodium is studied under the branch of biology called a) Microbiology b) Cell Biology c) Parasitology d) Pathology 
5.                  Study of life of ocean is a) Sea Biology b) Oceanography c) Marine Biology d) Ocean Ecology 
6.                  Insulin preparation comes under which branch of biology a) Social Biology b) Biotechnology c) Genetic Engineering d) Parasitology   www.allonlinefree.com
Mcqs Biology  1st year & 2nd year and for medical entry test 
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7.                  What is the right distribution of levels of study from smaller to larger a) Specie, community, population , Ecosystem b) tissue, cell, organ, system c) Individual, Specie, population, community d) Organelle, tissue, organ, System 
8.                  Term Vaccinization was discovered by a) Edward Jenner b) Louis Pasteur c)Emil Fischer d) Robert Khoshland 
9.                  Biopesticides have advantage over chemical pesticides because a) Pests can not develop resistance against them b) They are cheaper c) Non Pollutant d) All of above 
10.              Cloning surely produces organisms that have identical a) genotype b) phenotype c) genome d) All of above
1. The mechanism by which organisms maintain the stability of their cellular environment is known as;
a. Homeostasis
b. Normal health
c. Structural adaption
d. Osmoregulation

2. When the concentration of external medium is equal to the concentration of internal medium of cell is called;
a. Hypertonic
b. Hypotonic
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c. Isotonic
d. Heterotonic

3. Brassica and rose plant belong to group of plants;
a. Hydrophytes
b. Mesophytes
c. Xerophytes
d. Succulents

4. Animals which are unable to adjust their internal salt concentration according to external environment is;
a. Anhydrobiosis
b. Osmoregulators
c. Thermoregulatory
d. Osmoconformers

5. Which one of the following animal can survive without drinking water?
a. Kangaroo rat
b. Pig
c. Kangaroo
d. Camel

6. Nitrogeneous wastes are produced as a result of; www.allonlinefree.com
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a. Photosynthesis
b. Ingestion

c. Assimilation
d. Deamination

7. Fresh water protozoans pumped out excess water by a special structure called;
a. Oral groove
b. Contractile vacuole
c. Pellicle
d. Vacuole

8. The term glycogenesis means, the conversion of;
a. glucose to Glycogen
b. Lactic acid to Glycogen
c. Glycogen to Glucose
d. Amino acid to Glycogen

9. Which one of the following nitrogenous compound is much more soluble in water?
a. Uric acid
b. Urea
c. Ammonia
d. Creatine
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10. The removal of amino group from amino acid is called;
a. Transamination
b. Deamination
c. Translocation
d. Transposition

11. The amount of water required for the removal of 2 g of ammonia is;
a. 200 ml
b. 500 ml
c. 100 ml
d. 1000 ml

12. In flatworms excretory system consists of a net work of closed tubules with out internal openings are called;
a. Nephridia
b. Protonephridia
c. Metanephridia
d. Nephrostome

13. According to the removal of nitrogenous wastes, reptiles and birds are the examples of;
a. Uricotelic
b. Ammonotelic
c. Ureotelic
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d. Ammoniotelic

14. The functional unit of human kidney is called;
a. Nephridia
b. Collecting tubule
c. Nephron
d. Nephrotome

15. The end product of haemoglobin is the;
a. Allontoin
b. Bilirubin
c. Xanthine
d. Creatinine

16. All of the following are the plasma proteins synthesize by Liver, except that of;
a. Albumin
b. Prothrombin
c. Glycogen
d. Fibrinogen

17. Liver is a large organ, making the body weight  up to;
a. 2 -- 3 %
b. 3 -- 6 %
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c. 1 -- 2 %
d. 3 -- 5 %

18. The term Glycogenolysis means, the conversion of;
a. Glucose into lactic acid
b. Glucose into Glycogen
c. Glucose into alcohol
d. Glucose into amino acid

19. Liver store tke vitamins A, D, E & K, which are the mainly;
a. Fat soluble
b. Cold water soluble
c. Alcoholic soluble
d. Hot water soluble

20. As human kidney has less than one percent of total body weight and with each cardiac cycle it receive the bllod of about;
a. 50 %
b. 30 %
c. 20 %
d. 25 %

21. Creatinine is produced  in;

physics 2009 entry test paper mcqs

18 University of Health Sciences, Lahore



Total MCQs: 220             Max. Marks: 1100 ENTRANCE TEST – 2009 For F.Sc. Students Only Time Allowed: 150 minutes


Instructions:     i. Read the instructions on the MCQs Response Form carefully.    ii. Choose the Single Best Answer for each question.   iii. Candidates are strictly prohibited from giving any identification mark except Roll No. & Signature in the specified columns only.

 COMPULSORY QUESTION FOR IDENTIFICATION Q-ID. What is the color of your Question Paper?   A) White.      C) Pink.   B) Blue.     D) Green. Ans: Colour of your Question Paper is Blue. Fill the Circle Corresponding to Letter ‘B’ against ‘ID’ in your MCQ response form (Exactly as shown in the diagram).
 PHYSICS
Q.1 If R1 = 10 kΩ and R2 = 100 kΩ then the gain of op-amplifier as inverting amplifier is: 








A) –1       C) –10   B) 10       D) 1 

Q.2 If inputs A = 1, B = 0 and output X = 1, then it corresponds to the operation of a: A) AND Gate      C) XNOR Gate      B) NAND Gate      D) NOR Gate 

Q.3 The value of Stefan’s Boltzmann Constant is: A) 4.28 x 10-7 Wm-2K-4     C) 3.62 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4      B) 4.28 x 10-4 Wm-2K-4     D) 5.67 x 10-5 Wm-2K-4 

Q.4 Einstein’s photoelectric equation is given by: A) hf = ϕ = ½ mv2     C) E = hc2     B) E = mc2      D) hf = ½ mv2   
 A B C D ID     1     2     3     4         
R1             

    R2
~
Page 2 of 18 Q.5 In Compton Effect, the value of 
h moc is given by: A) 1.43 x 10-11 m     C) 2.43 x 10-12 m     B) 2.56 x 10-12 m     D) 3.46 x 10-6 m 

Q.6 If a particle of mass 5.0 mg moves with the speed of 8.0 m/sec, then the de-Broglie’s wavelength will be: A) 1.68 x 10-27 m      C) 1.65 x 10-29 m     B) 1.70 x 10-25 m     D) 1.66 x 10-29 m 

Q.7 LASER is a device which can produce: A) Intense beam of light     C) Coherent beam of light  B) Intense, Coherent, Monochromatic beam of light  D) Monochromatic beam of light

Q.8 A crack allows greater amount of X-rays to pass, which appears on photographic film as: A) Blue Area      C) Bright Area     B) Dark Area       D) Red Area

Q.9 The emission of γ-radiations from the nucleus is generally represented by the equation:
 A) X Z A   →   X Z A •  +  γ-radiations   C) X Z A •   →   X Z  1 A  +  γ-radiations 
 B) X Z A •   →   X Z A  +  β-particles   D) X Z A •   →   X Z A  +  γ-radiations 
 Q.10 For intermediate energy of radiations, the dormant process is: A) Compton Effect      C) Photoelectric Effect B) Nuclear Effect      D) Pair Production   

Q.11 The dimensions of gravitational constant “G” are:  A) [ML-2T-1]      C) [ML-2T-2]  B) [M2L-2T-1]       D) [M-1L3T-1]

Q.12 Ultraviolent radiations cause:  A) Severe Crop Damage    C) Decay of Microorganisms   B) Sunburn, blindness, skin cancer   D) All of the above

Q.13 Unit vector in the direction of vector 2i  − 4j  will be:  A) 2i   − 4j √ 6       C) i   − 2j √ 5
  B) 4i   − 2j √ 10      D) i   − 2j √ 7

 Q.14 If the force of magnitude 8 N acts on a body in direction making an angle 30, its X and Y components will be:  A) Fx = 3√3  Fy = 4      C) Fx = 4√3  Fy = 8  B) Fx = 4√3  Fy = 4     D) Fx = 8  Fy = 4√3
 Q.15 Two waves of slightly different frequencies and travelling in the same direction lead to:  A) Stationary Waves      C) Beats   B) Interference     D) Both B and C

Q.16 What is it that we use to calculate the speeds of distant stars and galaxies?  A) Doppler Effect      C) Beats   B) Interference     D) All of the above

Q.17 In Young’s Double Slit Experiment, if the distance between slits and screen is doubled, then fringe spacing becomes:  A) Zero      C) Doubles of the original value  B) One      D) Half of the original value

Page 3 of 18 Q.18 In Michelson’s interferometer 792 bright fringes pass across the field of view when its movable mirror is displaced through 0.233 mm using the equation l = m λ 2 the wavelength of light used is:  A) 588 nm      C) 348 nm   B) 620 nm      D) 400 nm

Q.19 In Michelson’s Experiment, the formula to calculate the speed of light is:  A) c = 2 fd       C) c = 16 f d
  B) c = 2π f d       D) c = 16 fd 

Q.20 The information received at the other end of a fibre can be inaccurate due to _______ of the light signal.  A) Longer wavelengths    C) Intensity   B) Frequency      D) Dispersion or Spreading

Q.21 The pressure on the other sides and everywhere inside the vessel will be according to the:  A) Pascal’s Law     C) Boyle’s Law   B) Hook’s Law      D) Charles’s Law

Q.22 The value of universal; Gas Constant ‘R’ is;  A) 8.314 Jmol-2K-1      C) 1.38 Jmol-1K-1  B) 1.38 Jmol-1K-2      D) 8.314 Jmol-1K-1

Q.23 For adiabatic process, the First Law of Thermodynamics is:  A) W = ∆U + Q     C) Q = W   B) Q = – W       D) W = – ∆U

Q.24 The entropy of the universe always:  A) Decreases      C) Remains the same  B) Increases      D) Both A and B 

Q.25 The work done in moving a unit positive charge from one point to another against the electric field is a measure of:  A) Capacitance     C) Intensity of electric field   B) Potential difference between two points  D) Resistance between two points

Q.26 In Millikan’s Method, the radius of droplet can be calculated by:  A) r = qvt 2ρg       C) r2 = 9ηvt 2ρg
   B) r2 = 9ηvt ρg       D) r = 9ηvt 2ρg


Q.27 The scalar product of i  and k  is:  A) Zero      C) 1  B) 90°       D) –1 

Q.28 If the body is rotating with uniform angular velocity, then its torque is:  A) Zero      C) Maximum   B) Clockwise      D) Remains the same

Q.29 Speed of light, radio waves and microwaves in vacuum is:  A) 3 x 105 ms-1      C) 3 x 106 ms-1  B) 3 x 103 ms-1      D) 3 x 108 ms-1

Q.30 A body is moving with an initial velocity of 2 kms-1. After a time of 50 secs its velocity becomes 1.5 kms-1. Its acceleration will be:  A) 30 ms-1        C) 20 ms-1  B) 40 ms-1        D) 10 ms-1

Page 4 of 18 Q.31 When a car moves with constant acceleration, the velocity-time graph is a:

A)     C) 

B)     D) 

Q.32 In elastic collision, when a massive body collides with light body at conditions m1 >> m2 and v2 = 0 ms-1, then the change in velocity will be written as:  A) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ v1       C) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 2v1     B) v1’ ≈ v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0        D) v1’ ≈ − v1 ; v2’ ≈ 0 

Q.33 If a certain force acts on an object and changes its kinetic energy from 65 J to 130 J, then work done by the force will be:  A) 92.5 J      C) 65 J   B) 97.5 J      D) 130 J

Q.34 A bullet train is lifted above the rails due to magnetic effect, thus friction is reduced to minimum and speed can be enhanced up to:  A) 500 Km min-1      C) 1000 Km h-1  B) 500 Km sec-1      D) 500 Km h-1

Q.35 In a certain circuit, if the transistor has a collector current of 10 mA and base current of 50 μA, then the current gain of the transistor is:  A) 250       C) 150   B) 100       D) 200

Q.36 A signal that is applied at the inverting input terminal of an op-amplifier undergo amplification, at the output terminal with a phase shift of:  A) 0°       C) 360°  B) 270°      D) 180°

Q.37 Solar energy at normal incidence outside the earth’s atmosphere is about:  A) 2.5 kWm-2      C) 1.4 kWm-2  B) 0.6 kWm-2      D) 2.0 kWm-2

Q.38 Linear velocity or tangential velocity of any particle moving in a circular path of radius 2 m with angular velocity 8 rads-1 will be:  A) 16 ms-1      C) 10 ms-1   B) 4 ms-1      D) 6 ms-1 

Q.39 What is torque ‘τ’ in a circular motion?  A) τ = mr2π       C) τ = mrα  B) τ = mr2α      D) τ = mr2/α

Q.40 If the mass attached with a spring becomes four times, the time period of vibration becomes:  A) One fourth      C) Half   B) 3/4      D) Double
v                    t
v                    t
v                    t
v                    t
Page 5 of 18 Q.41 A body of mass 6 g falls under action of gravity. At initial position ‘A’ its P.E. is 480 J and K.E. is 0 J. During its downward journey at point ‘B’ its energies will be (g = 10 ms-2):



 A) P.E. = 300 J and K.E. = 180 J   C) P.E. = 230 J and K.E. = 250 J  B) P.E. = 180 J and K.E. = 300 J    D) P.E. = 250 J and K.E. = 230 J

Q.42 A tiny droplet of oil of density ‘ρ’ and radius ‘r’ falls through air under force of gravity. If viscosity of air is ‘η’, the terminal velocity acquired by the oil drop is given by:
 A) vt =
4gr2ρ 9η       C) vt =
2gr2ρ 9η 
 B) vt =
9ηr2ρ 4g
       D) vt =
9ηr2ρ 2g


Q.43 Torricelli’s theorem be written as:  A) v2 = 2g (h1 - h2)      C) v2 = 2g (h2 - h1)  B) v2 = g (h2 - h1)       D) v2 = g (h1 - h2) 
 Q.44 When the spaceship rotates with ________ frequency, the artificial gravity like earth is produced to inhabitants of the ship:  A) 2π R g       C) 1 2π R g
  B) 2π ℓ g      D) 1 2π R g 
 Q.45 In a microwave oven, the wave produced has a wavelength of 12 cm at a frequency of:  A) 2452 Hz       C) 2455 Hz  B) 2456 Hz      D) 2450 Hz

Q.46 Speed of the waves is equal to:  A) fλ        C) Both A and B   B) λ T        D) λT

Q.47 A particle carrying charge of 2e falls through a potential difference of 3.0 V. Calculate the energy required by it:  A) 9.6 x 10-19 J      C) 1.6 x 10-19 J  B) 9.1 x 10-19 J     D) 6.0 x 10-19 J

Q.48 The deviation of I-V graph from the straight line is due to: A) Decrease in temperature and decrease in resistance  B) Increase in temperature and increase in resistance C) Decrease in temperature and increase in resistance D) Increase in temperature and decrease in resistance


6 g

P.E. = 480 J K.E. = 0 J          A



         B                 6 m
                       3 m
Page 6 of 18 Q.49 The fractional change in resistance per Kelvin is known as:  A) Temperature coefficient of resistance  C) Linear coefficient of expansion   B) Thermal coefficient     D) Volumetric coefficient of expansion 

Q.50 The energy supplied by the cell to the charge carriers is derived from the conversion of:  A) Heat energy into Electrical energy   C) Solar energy into Electrical energy  B) Chemical energy into Electrical energy   D) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy

Q.51 Force experienced by a moving change in a magnetic field is:  A) F = BA cosϴ      C) F = q (v x B)  B) F = μo NI       D) F = I (L x B)

Q.52 The value of permeability of free space μo is:  A) 4π x 10-7 WbA-1m-1     C) 4π x 10-7 WbA-2m-1  B) 4π x 102 WbA-2m-2      D) 4π x 102 WbA-1m-2

Q.53 What shunt resistance must be connected across a Galvanometer of 20 Ω resistance which gives full scale deflection with 2.0 A current, so as to convert it into an Ammeter of range 10 A?  A) 5 Ω       C) 3 Ω  B) 2 Ω      D) 4 Ω

Q.54 The current measuring part of the Avometer consists of number of low resistances connected:  A) At an angle of 180° with the galvanometer  C) At an angle of 45° with the galvanometer   B) Parallel with the galvanometer   D) Perpendicular to the galvanometer

Q.55 A charge of two micro coulombs (2 μC) moves with velocity of two meter per second (2 m/sec) in the direction of two Tesla magnetic field. The force that will act on it will be:  A) 2 N       C) 8 N  B) Zero       D) 4 N

Q.56 We have two coils placed close to each other. When we switch on the battery connected to primary coil while keeping the sliding contact of rheostat at fixed position, the reading of Galvanometer:  A) First increases and then becomes zero  B) First increases and then becomes constant at some value  C) Increases with the passage of time  D) Remains zero

Q.57 Power losses in a transformer can be minimized:  A) By increasing turn ratio     B) By decreasing turn ratio      C) By stopping the flow of Eddy currents  D) Using material of the core whose hysteresis area is large

Q.58 In R-L Series circuit, the phase difference between applied voltage and current is given by the angle ϴ which is:  A) ϴ = tan-1 LR ω      C) ϴ = tan-1 ω g

 B) ϴ = tan-1 ωLR      D) ϴ = tan-1
ωR L


Q.59 Frequency of L-C circuit will resonate under the driving action of the antenna by angular value of:  A) Capacitance     C) Inductance  B) Impedance      D) Resistance

Q.60 To convert the Si crystal into p-type semi-conductor, which group element will be doped:  A) Trivalent Element     C) Fourth Group Element  B) Second Group Element    D) Pentavalent Element